You seem very keen to establish that I have no fundamental theological understanding, while you've cornered the market in truth. Having recently lost my wife of 12 years, who was as close to a Biblical scholar as you'll find, she'd have given you a real argument of the idea of Biblical literalism. To return to the quotation from John 15:6, "If a man not abide in me...", who do you think the 'me' being referred to is? To add to that, given the widespread belief in the Holy Trinity, since Jesus is God essentially, then when he speaks for God, he literally is god speaking. So the advice from me would be, stop concentrating on discrediting what I say and focus instead on making your point from a slightly better educated Biblical stance. By the way, yes, I have read, albeit English translations, both sets of Scriptures. My original point is this: it is entirely disingenuous to use scriptural moralism, which equates to Biblical literalism, unless you're prepared to use all of it without being selective against particular groups, because that, my friend, is definitively persecution.